ILE Phase 3 Tactical Studies (C400) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which offensive operation is used to disorganize the enemy in depth after a successful attack?
• In a patrol context, what distinguishes reconnaissance from surveillance?
• Which term describes maintaining the initiative by preventing the enemy from shifting the battle's tempo or direction?
• Sectors of fire are defined how?
• What fundamental of stabilization includes gaining buy-in, coordinating training and operations, and conducting foreign military sales with the host-nation government?
• Which statement best differentiates a hasty ambush from a deliberate ambush?
• What is the combined arms employment of joint and Army capabilities to create and exploit relative advantages that achieve objectives, defeat enemy forces, and consolidate gains on behalf of joint force commanders?
• Which of the following is NOT a tenet of multidomain operations?
• Which of the following is a 'Follow and' Tactical Mission Task?
• Bounding overwatch is used to do what during movement?
• What are the two sub-categories of a fragile state?
• What term best describes the defense posture that uses a 'mobile defense' to disrupt the enemy's momentum?
• How do you adjust a compass bearing to align with a map given a magnetic declination?
• Describe standard radio discipline and brevity practices.
• Which statement correctly differentiates the three types of reconnaissance: route, area, and zone?
• What form of maneuver seeks to force the enemy to move out of its position?
• What does TACON authority allow a commander to do with regard to force application?
• Which is a stated purpose of offensive operations?
• Which of the following are threat cues a patrol might observe in the field?
• Light discipline during night operations influences movement and detection by:
• What is the main difference between security and reconnaissance operations?
• A basic field medical kit for immediate care should contain which of the following contents?
• What type of reconnaissance management should improve chances that reconnaissance element collects the required information?
• What is the doctrinal focus of the end state?
• Which of the following is NOT an objective of OPFOR offensive operations?
• Which of the following is NOT a sign of dehydration?
• Which term describes tempo as a key factor in offensive operations?
• What is the action between two elements to coordinate transfer of information and responsibility for observation of potential threat contact, or transfer of an assigned area from one element to another?
• Which factor is used to estimate distances between known points in the field?
• Which duty status provides federal funding for National Guard forces while the governor retains control?
• What does IPB stand for, and what is its role in phase 3 tactical studies?
• What is the recommended action when threat cues are observed in the field?
• Which of the following is a listed defensive operation type for the opposing force?
• Why are Priority Intelligence Requirements (PIRs) prioritized?
• Which scenario best suits a wedge formation?
• Which action fixes the enemy in place to prevent maneuver and buy time?
• Which two strategies support buddy safety during movement?
• Which statement best describes the primary aim of security operations?
• Which statement best defines situation awareness and what two techniques help maintain it in the field?
• Identify two civilian considerations that must be integrated into ROE (Rules of Engagement).
• UAS platforms have limited effectiveness in locating what?
• Key terrain is terrain whose seizure yields a significant advantage. Which two example types are given for patrol planning?
• What is the purpose of an After Action Review (AAR)?
• Most National Guard commitments are for how long?
• How should a leader handle stress and maintain morale during a difficult field operation?
• What actions constitute a standard React to Contact drill sequence?
• What Army echelon is the most versatile due to its ability to operate at both the tactical and operational levels?
• Which document describes best practices for responding to specific incidents?
• Which METT-TC (I) consideration addresses those aspects of the human, information, and physical dimensions?
• How many elements make up METT-TC?
• What are PIRs (Priority Intelligence Requirements) and why are they important?
• Which status provides Title 10 authority for federal activation of National Guard forces?
• What best contrasts ambush and raid in terms of objective?
• Which term describes concentrating fires from multiple sources to overwhelm a fortified position?
• What is the function of an Entry Control Point (ECP) in security operations?
• Which activity occurs during risk assessment within risk management?
• Which of the following statements best represents a purpose of the defense?
• What are the end state conditions for stability efforts?
• In a mission brief, coordinating instructions refer to what?
• Which characteristic of the defense focuses on developing plans that anticipate a range of enemy actions and allocate resources?
• What is a pace count and how is it used in land navigation?
• What are the five dynamics of combat power?
• How do you read a military map, and what do contour lines represent?
• Transition from one type of operation to another requires accurate ______ capabilities as well as mental and physical agility of all those involved.
• What is described as undetected movement through or into an area occupied by enemy forces to occupy a position of advantage behind those enemy positions while exposing only small elements to enemy defensive fires?
• What is required to properly read a military map?
• This operational area is assigned to a unit in the defense that has rear and lateral boundaries with interlocking fires.
• What is a constraint of a cavalry squadron?
• Which set of elements makes up a proper field debrief checklist?
• Define ROE and explain how it guides tactical decisions.
• How does the OODA loop apply to a small-unit patrol?
• Units assigned responsibilities for governance, law and order, and providing essential services are referred to as __________?
• What are the two essential life-saving measures for hemorrhage control in the field?
• Which term describes a defensive approach focused on slowing and wearing down an attacker to enable a counterattack?
• What term describes the actions Army forces must take to defeat the enemy and achieve objectives at acceptable cost?
• What type of offensive operation would an ABCT most likely use if the unit knows some or all of the enemy's disposition?
• A map grid is used to do what?
• As part of defensive planning, commanders ensure that subordinate unit defensive plans are compatible and that control measures such as contact points and phase lines are sufficient for coordination when assigning areas. This best describes which warfighting function?
• Which term describes the unit that temporarily governs, maintains law and order, and provides essential services in a stability operation?
• What are the four DSCA primary tasks?
• What best describes the OPFOR offensive principle of coordination?
• What term means extensive joint combat operations involving multiple corps and divisions?
• NOT a defensive zone component in the opposing force's doctrine?
• Which term describes forward reconnaissance that screens the main body?
• How do you convert map distances to ground distances using scale and pace counting?
• Which statement best captures the OPFOR offensive principle of coordination?
• Which element is combined under the T in METT-TC?
• What best describes the integrated efforts of the commander's broad approach and the staff's scientific approach to produce a plan?
• What type of decisions are based upon anticipated conditions (CCIRs) and captured on the unit's decision support matrix to aid the commander?
• In stability operations, which unit is most likely to lead stability operations aimed at restoring services and legitimacy?
• What is the correct sequence of initial casualty assessment priorities?
• What are the primary steps of risk management in a field exercise?
• Which Tactical Mission Task involves taking possession of an objective?
• Which statement describes what gaining buy-in from the host nation typically involves?
• If a commander is able to select the time, place and method used by his attacking force, what would the commander have?
• Which of the following is an objective of OPFOR offensive operations?
• What is a 360-degree defense and when is it used?
• Which of the following is true about the representation of roads on tactical maps?
• Which term describes increasing information reliability by using multiple reconnaissance assets?
• What does the abbreviation JFHQ-State stand for?
• What is the purpose of rehearsals prior to a patrol or mission?
• Who has the authority to approve activation of federal assets in inter-state National Guard operations when local resources cannot meet demand?
• What is the purpose of an observation plan, and what should it include?
• Which control measure should graphically depict the location of provisions under cover before the main effort advances?
• Which statement best describes the iterative nature of the OODA loop in patrols?
• METT-TC stands for which elements and how is it used in Phase 3 Tactical Studies?
• In a/an ______ defense, transitioning to the offense generally follows the striking force's counterattack.
• Which statement about IPB in phase 3 is correct?
• Which description best defines stability in doctrinal terms?
• What best describes the content of a doctrinally correct end state?
• What is an OPORD, and what are its typical sections?
• Which of the following options lists two defensive techniques used to protect a perimeter?
• Which conditions would initiate stability operations?
• Which option is not a technique to maintain situation awareness in the field?
• Which type of defensive operation concentrates on denying enemy forces access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright?
• Which statement best describes the goal of risk management during field exercises?
• Which are the tenets of multidomain operations (MDO)?
• How are roads and built-up areas identified on standard tactical maps?
• Which statement best exemplifies a stability operation activity that builds partner capacity through security relationships?
• Which concept increases an enemy's vulnerability by forcing the enemy commander to concentrate subordinate forces?
• Which Army stability operations task includes activities that seek to promote stability, develop alliances, and gain and maintain access through security relationships that build both partner capacity and capabilities?
• Why is water discipline important in tactical operations and which signs indicate dehydration?
• When commanders have tactical control (TACON) over forces, they have the authority to do what?
• What information is typically included in a call for indirect fire (fire support) request?
• Which type of defensive operation is an organized movement away from the enemy and requires higher-echelon approval prior to execution?
• During a disaster spanning multiple states, which command status best unifies National Guard and federal military efforts?
• Which components of the operational framework describe the operation in terms of resources and priorities of support?
• Describe the navigation method known as resection and when it is used.
• Which of the following is NOT a Tactical Mission Task?
• At the division level, which integration cell is most likely responsible for conducting RDSP and issuing FRAGORDs when the plan changes?
• Which practice helps prevent fatigue during extended field operations?
• Which Tactical Mission Task means to isolate an enemy force?
• In an assault, which statement correctly distinguishes line of departure from line of march?
• Which Tactical Mission Task involves disengaging from contact to reorient, reposition, or recover?
• Which of the following statements best describes the benefit of interlocking fields of fire in perimeter defense?
• If the commander as part of planning considerations wants to destroy, defeat or repel all enemy reconnaissance, which tactical mission task would you assign a formation?
• If indirect fires, direct fires, and electronic warfare are converged against a heavily fortified enemy position, what is the most likely result?
• What type of offensive operation would an ABCT execute to disorganize the enemy in depth following a successful attack?
• Which option represents a key defensive operations intelligence planning consideration?
• Which statement is NOT one of the four primary weapon safety rules?
• What is the Army's primary combined arms, close-combat maneuver force that can maneuver against, close with, and destroy enemy forces?
• Which statement best describes deliberate ambush planning?
• Which ethical principles should guide tactical decisions in civilian environments?
• Which document would describe best practices for coordinating national disaster response, including response principles, partner roles, and emergency support functions?
• What is the primary focus of reconnaissance operations?
• In a catastrophic event where demand for resources exceeds National Guard capacity, requests for federal Army forces are supported by which unified commands?
• Why do commanders use defeat and stability mechanisms?
• In opposing force (China's) defensive tactics, a defensive zone consists of which of the following components?
• Increasing the enemy's vulnerability by forcing the enemy to concentrate subordinate forces is an example of what?
• Which warfighting function's primary purpose is to assist commanders in integrating the other warfighting functions effectively at each echelon, and to apply combat power to achieve objectives and accomplish missions?
• A Phase 3 Tactical Studies mission brief should include which core components?
• Which statement best describes the main purpose of the Main Effort in an operation?
• A/An __________ is a physically defined portion of an operational environment requiring a unique set of warfighting capabilities and skills.
• How does the commander drive the operations process?
• Which authority allows a local commander to provide military assistance to a local civil authority for a limited time without higher approval?
• What are two fatigue indicators and how can you mitigate them?
• Which term describes fighting to wear down and attrit an attacker to reduce their combat effectiveness?
• The description 'arriving ahead of the enemy to create overwhelming combat power at specific locations to support the main effort' describes which defense characteristic?
• Which of the following is an end-state element of stability operations?
• Observation Posts and Listening Posts are used for what in patrolling?
• Under which condition would a BCT most likely transition from the offense?
• If ABCT commander instructs staff to acquire stockage of Class I and Class VIII and to start identifying key leaders within host nation security forces, what tasks is he preparing his unit for?
• Observation Posts (OPs) are primarily used to do what?
• Which document organizes command guidance into Situation, Mission, Execution, Sustainment, and Command and Signal?
• What is key guidance for moving through a built-up area?
• Which tool best supports the staff in understanding the situation, assessing progress, and making decisions?
• Which graphic control measure provides fire support to friendly maneuvering forces?
• USNORTHCOM does NOT conduct DSCA in which US states and territories?
• Distinguish between cover and concealment with examples.
• What is a primary purpose of a field debrief?
• Which Tactical Mission Task involves circumventing an obstacle without destroying it?
• Which term describes undetected movement behind enemy lines to gain an advantageous position?
• Which statement correctly pairs a basic patrol formation with its stated advantage?
• In inter-state National Guard deployments, which headquarters ensures coordination between supporting and supported states?
• Which statement correctly differentiates CASEVAC from MEDEVAC in a field operation?